lucyinthesky said – Tue, 09 Sep 2008 21:21:03 -0000 ( Link )
One thing that has bothered for as long as I have been able to write is whether or not to use an apostrophe in the possessive, after a noun that ends in a silent “s”. For example, I have noticed works writing Descartes’ and Dumas’, as well as Descartes’s and Dumas’s. They both mean the same thing…and to my knowledge so far, they both are acceptable.
An article on Wikipedia I found states the following:
“The English possessive of French nouns ending in a silent s, x, or z is rendered differently by different authorities. For possessive plurals of words ending in silent x, z, or s, the few authorities that address the issue at all call for an added s, and require that the apostrophe precede the s: “The Loucheux’s homeland is in the Yukon; Compare the two Dumas’s literary achievements.”
The way we speak English can also differ from the way we write it. For example, we say “for goodness’ sake”. Should there be an “s” after the apostrophe or not. or even an apostrophe at all?
Certainly for someone learning English as a second language it will be quite perplexing, considering this is my native language and I still don’t know what is “right”! Are there any other complexities in the English language such as this that you have always found ambiguous or confusing?
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